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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

08.06.2025 02:23

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

If my heart stopped beating, would I have enough energy to walk out into the other room 20 ft away before I passed out and died?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

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Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

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There's no rule.